45Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures, 46And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: 47And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. 48And ye are witnesses of these things. 49And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high.
Comment: This passage states the Old Testament scriptures speak of the Messiah needing to suffer, die, and rise again. If this is true, somebody would need to fulfill those scriptures. Even a superficial reading of Isaiah 53 indicates the Messiah would need to suffer and die for sins. Psalm 16:10 implies a resurrection when it speaks of the Holy One not seeing the corruption of the grave. To avoid the beginnings of corruption in that part of the world, the body would have needed to be resurrected within three days. However, none of the Jews including the disciples ever interpreted these scriptures in this manner. But, strangely enough, the death and resurrection of Jesus fits the scriptural intent completely. How could the disciples have manufactured this interpretation of the scriptures when the culture of that time never conceived of the death and resurrection of the Messiah? That's why the disciples had to have their minds "opened". Also how could the disciples have imagined the resurrection occurring on the third day unless the events actually took place and Jesus, conscious of the actual intent of the scriptures, actually said what is recorded here?